A 60-year-old man is brought to the ED via ambulance complaining of severe retrosternal discomfort accompanied by diaphoresis and nausea. The pain started an hour ago and was slightly relieved when medics administered ASA and nitroglycerine in the prehospital setting. The prehospital ECG in nondiagnostic. The patient suffered a similar event a month ago for which he underwent treadmill stress testing that was reported as normal. He later followed up with a cardiologist and an angiography was performed 4 days ago which again did not reveal any significant occlusive lesions. Which is FALSE when considering the risk of an acute coronary event in this patient?