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A 17-year-old male presents with unilateral testicular pain for approximately 8 hours with vomiting. On examination the testicle is swollen and hard. You cannot appreciate an obviously abnormal lie, but cremasteric reflex is absent. Prehn’s sign is positive. You are able to obtain an urgent ultrasound which demonstrates a hyperemic testicle. Colour doppler exhibits normal arterial flow but no venous flow. Which of the following options represents the BEST next step?