A 78 year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 4 day history of worsening knee pain and swelling. His Past Medical History is significant for Hypertension and Chronic Kidney Disease. His medications include Ramipril and Amlodipine. On examination you note a large effusion which is red and hot. You proceed to do arthroscopy which shows the following: WBC: 17 000 PMN: 78% Gram stain: negative Microscopy: positive for crystals. Which of the following is the best management plan for this patient?